❓ 質問 According to the passage, which of the following best explains why cultural capital can lead to social inequality?
- A. It is directly convertible into money, giving the wealthy an advantage.
- B. It is acquired only through formal schooling, which is expensive.
- C. It is unequally distributed and favors the cultural tastes of the dominant class.
- D. It prevents individuals from lower classes from gaining any education.